Lesson 2.5.3

2.5.3 Uses of genetic screening and prenatal testing Quiz: Pearson Edexcel Biology A (Salters-Nuffield), Unit 2

20 questions

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Lesson 2.5.3, Uses of genetic screening and prenatal testing: 20 multiple choice questions for the Pearson Edexcel Biology A (Salters-Nuffield) (9BI0), Unit 2: Genes and Health, written with Revision Ninja.

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The 20 questions

  1. What is the purpose of carrier screening?

    • To identify people who carry one copy of a recessive allele and show no symptoms
    • To identify people who have already developed the symptoms of the condition
    • To cure a recessive condition by inserting a healthy copy of the gene
    • To measure the protein levels of an unborn child in the womb
  2. What does pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) involve?

    • Testing a fetus in the uterus after implantation using a needle guided by ultrasound
    • Removing an egg from the ovary and testing it before fertilisation takes place
    • Screening a newborn's blood for a genetic disorder shortly after birth
    • Testing embryos created by IVF for a genetic condition before one is implanted in the uterus
  3. Which fluid is sampled during amniocentesis?

    • Blood from the umbilical cord
    • Amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus
    • Cerebrospinal fluid from the fetal spine
    • Synovial fluid from the fetal joints
  4. What tissue is sampled during chorionic villus sampling (CVS)?

    • The fetal liver, sampled through the abdominal wall
    • The uterine lining, which contains no fetal cells at all
    • The mother's bone marrow, which carries fetal DNA
    • Tissue from the placenta, which has the same genetic make-up as the fetus
  5. Which prenatal test is usually performed earlier in pregnancy?

    • Chorionic villus sampling
    • Neither is performed before birth
    • Amniocentesis
    • Both are performed at exactly 40 weeks
  6. Which statement about prenatal sampling procedures is correct?

    • Miscarriage risk applies only to pre-implantation genetic diagnosis
    • Only chorionic villus sampling carries a miscarriage risk, because it is invasive
    • Both amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling carry a small risk of miscarriage
    • Neither procedure carries any risk to the pregnancy
  7. Two carriers of a recessive condition use PGD. Which embryos would normally be selected for implantation?

    • Embryos that carry two dominant alleles at the locus
    • Embryos found to be unaffected, whether carriers or non-carriers
    • Only embryos found to be affected, so the condition can be studied
    • All embryos, regardless of their genotype, to maximise the number of pregnancies
  8. Two carrier parents each produce three embryos by IVF. If each embryo independently has a 1/4 chance of being affected, what is the probability that none of the three embryos is affected?

    • 27/64
    • 1/4
    • 1/64
    • 9/64
  9. Why might a prenatal test be offered to a couple who are both carriers of a recessive allele?

    • To determine the sex of the fetus, which is the main reason for the test
    • To determine whether the mother will be able to breastfeed the baby
    • To assess how many eggs were released during the menstrual cycle
    • To determine whether the fetus has inherited two copies of the recessive allele
  10. A positive prenatal screening result is obtained for a serious inherited condition. What implication is most important?

    • It may raise difficult decisions for parents about whether to continue the pregnancy
    • It proves that the child will have severe symptoms throughout life
    • It removes the need for any medical care for the child after birth
    • It guarantees that the mother is a carrier of the same condition
  11. A prenatal test reports that a fetus has two copies of the CF allele. Which outcome is expected?

    • The child will be healthy because the mutant alleles cancel each other out
    • The child is expected to develop CF, although the severity varies between individuals
    • The child will show CF only if the mother has the disease herself
    • The child will be a carrier with no symptoms throughout life
  12. Two carrier parents have two children. What is the probability that at least one child is affected by a recessive condition?

    • 7/16
    • 9/16
    • 1/16
    • 1/4
  13. Which screening test is commonly carried out on newborn babies in the UK for some inherited conditions?

    • A blood spot test taken from a heel prick
    • A urine test for glucose only
    • A biopsy of the spinal cord
    • A chest X-ray in the first hour after birth
  14. Why can the result of amniocentesis take some time to become available?

    • The mother's blood must be filtered before the sample can be analysed
    • The results must be sent to a central national database before release
    • Fetal cells must be cultured in the laboratory before chromosomal or DNA analysis can be carried out
    • The fetus must grow to a larger size before the sample can be taken
  15. What is a disadvantage of PGD compared with prenatal testing during pregnancy?

    • It requires IVF, which is costly and physically demanding for the couple
    • It can only identify conditions linked to the X chromosome
    • It always produces twins, which increases the risk to the mother
    • It is performed after the child is born, so decisions are delayed
  16. What does a karyotype show?

    • The blood group of an individual
    • The sequence of amino acids in a protein
    • The number and structure of chromosomes in a cell
    • The rate of respiration in a cell
  17. A woman is 11 weeks pregnant. Why might an earlier test such as CVS be an advantage?

    • Results are available sooner, which gives more time to consider options
    • The fetus is larger, so more DNA can be sampled from it
    • The amniotic fluid is more concentrated, which improves the accuracy of the test
    • The placenta is fully formed, so there is no risk of infection
  18. In a population where q = 0.05 for a recessive allele, what percentage of people are carriers, approximately?

    • 5%
    • 9.5%
    • 95%
    • 0.25%
  19. In PGD, why is a single cell usually removed from each embryo?

    • So that the sex of the embryo can be checked by visual inspection
    • So that its DNA can be analysed without seriously harming the developing embryo
    • So that the embryo is stimulated to undergo further cell division
    • So that a tissue culture can be grown from the embryo's blood
  20. Which ethical concern is most directly raised when genetic screening results are shared with relatives without the individual's consent?

    • Confidentiality and informed consent
    • Equality of the sexes in competitive sport
    • The economic efficiency of the NHS
    • The right to vote in national elections

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